PMP Practice Paper I

Question 1 of 200

1. Question

The processes in project management have been classified into knowledge areas and _________.

Methods.
Process Group.
Categories.
Best practices.

Question 2 of 200

2. Question

The application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements is referred as:

Project initiation.
Project coordination.
Project administration.
Project management.

Question 3 of 200

3. Question

All of the following are examples of Enterprise Environmental Factors except:

Organizational culture.
Political climate.
Performance measurement criteria.
Existing facilities and infrastructure.

Question 4 of 200

4. Question

The person or organization that provides the funding or financial resources for the project is referred to as the:

Customer.
Sponsor.
Steering committee.
Project Management Office.

Question 5 of 200

5. Question

During the project lifecycle stakeholder identification is expected to be:

A continuous and sometimes difficult process.
The responsibility of the project sponsor.
Completed prior to the approval of the project charter.
Focused only stakeholders who will be impacted favorably as a result of the project.

Question 6 of 200

6. Question

The end of a project phase is generally considered to be:

The formal authorization to begin the next project phase.
A natural point to assess project performance and determine if the project should continue.
The points in the project life cycle where risk is at its lowest level.
The point where formal control procedures of the project are generally enforced.

Question 7 of 200

7. Question

All of the following statements about the project life cycle are true, except:

Cost and staffing are at the highest levels during the start of the project.
Risk is at the highest levels of uncertainty at the start of the project.
The control needs of the organization will determine how many phases will be included in the project life cycle.
Project phases are typically completed sequentially but can be overlapped to accelerate completion of a project.

Question 8 of 200

8. Question

As you are defining the project in more detail and moving through the phases of the project, you are engaged in which of the following?

Progressive elaboration.
Project selection.
Monitoring and Controlling.
Decomposition.

Question 9 of 200

9. Question

All of the following are generally considered characteristics of a project except:

Unique undertaking.
A temporary endeavor with specific starting and ending dates.
Ongoing and continually supporting organizational operations.
Completed when all objectives are achieved or terminated when the project objectives are no longer viable.

Question 10 of 200

10. Question

Your company is introducing a new product to be available in the first quarter of the next business cycle. The product will support an existing product as an add-on optional feature. Which of the following is true?

This is an ongoing operation because the previous product is already in use by customers.
This is a project because it involves a new product that has not been previously developed.
This is an operation because it adding a feature will be part of an ongoing sales effort.
This is a program that supports the operations of the company.

Question 11 of 200

11. Question

Generally, a project manager’s level of authority during their project assignment can be directly related to which of the following?

The project manager’s relationship with the project sponsor.
The organizational structure.
The project manager’s communications skills.
The project manager’s technical competency.

Question 12 of 200

12. Question

A significant advantage of the functional organizational structure is:

ll employees are grouped by expertise and assigned to one clear manager.
Communication between the elements of each functional group is fast and efficient.
Project work is considered to be priority work in all functional groups.
Resources are easily shared across functional groups.

Question 13 of 200

13. Question

You have been assigned as project manager in a balanced matrix organizational structure. This presents a challenge to you in obtaining and assigning project resources because:

The project manager has extremely low authority in a balanced matrix.
The project manager has an equal level of authority with the functional managers.
In a balanced matrix the project budget is controlled by the functional managers.
The project manager is assigned to the project on a part time basis.

Question 14 of 200

14. Question

The initiating process group includes all of the following except:

Stakeholder identification.
Business case development and review.
A contract or statement of work.
Project scope statement.

Question 15 of 200

15. Question

Which of the following process groups is specifically targeted to complete the project work and to satisfy project requirements?

Planning process group.
Executing process group.
Monitoring and Controlling process group.
Closing process group.

Question 16 of 200

16. Question

The project manager should communicate the need for a change control process mainly because:

The cost of project changes will not change significantly as the project progresses but it is important to maintain a record of all changes for budget tracking purposes.
The cost of project changes will likely increase through the project lifecycle and a process should be in place to ensure that only necessary changes are considered and implemented.
This will minimize the number if changes that can be introduced into the project which will result in better quality, higher customer satisfaction and reduced rejects.
The change control process will ensure that only stakeholders with significant authority can submit change requests.

Question 17 of 200

17. Question

Success in portfolio management is generally defined as:

Compliance with schedule, budget, and specifications requirements.
Realization of the business benefits and financial objectives.
Aggregate investment performance and benefit realization.
Control of changes to specific products and services.

Question 18 of 200

18. Question

The set of combined processes implemented by the project manager to ensure all the elements of the project are effectively coordinated are known as:

Project execution.
Inputs, Tools and Techniques, Outputs.
Project Integration Management.
Project Monitoring and Control.

Question 19 of 200

19. Question

The document that assigns a project manager and officially authorizes a project to use organizational resources for the purpose of planning, executing and controlling a project is the:

Project Charter.
Project Plan.
Scope Statement.
Work Authorization Form.

Question 20 of 200

20. Question

A project manager schedules meetings for many different reasons. Status review meetings are typically:

Held to provide all stakeholders with critical project information.
Held to exchange information about the project between project team members.
Held to update departmental staff of project status.
Held only when there is a need for a workaround.

Question 21 of 200

21. Question

__________ is any documented procedure used to apply technical and administrative direction and surveillance for the purpose of identifying, recording, and controlling any changes to product characteristics.

Scope Change Control.
Schedule Change Control.
Quality Control.
Configuration Management.

Question 22 of 200

22. Question

A ____________ consists of the data sources, tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, analyze and disseminate the results of the combined outputs of the project management processes.

Project management planning system.
Project controls system.
Project communication system.
Project management information system.

Question 23 of 200

23. Question

Assumptions are factors used for planning purposes and may be communicated to a project team by several different stakeholders. These factors, when stated, are generally considered to be true, real or certain and are:

Absolute and non-negotiable.
Not always based on factual information.
Estimates.
Easy to understand and communicate.

Question 24 of 200

24. Question

The project management plan is used to:

Provide project inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs to be used on the project for the purpose of managing the product of the project.
Guide project execution, document project planning assumptions, and facilitate communication among stakeholders.
Provide general management, product quality, and project management information which is communicated to all stakeholders.
Create organized policies using stakeholders skills and knowledge, then itemized and catalogued in the corporate knowledge base.

Question 25 of 200

25. Question

____________ are usually included to support the overall project management plan and are developed for the purpose of providing more detailed information, guidelines and control processes for specifically defined project elements or planning components.

Change request forms.
Performance reports.
Subsidiary plans.
Statements of work.

Question 26 of 200

26. Question

During the planning process the project manager should be aware that assumptions generally involve:

A degree of risk.
Direction from the Sponsor.
Financial controls.
Detailed, factual information.

Question 27 of 200

27. Question

______________ are applicable restrictions that will affect project performance:

Organizational policies.
Performance guidelines.
Constraints.
Additional planning requirements.

Question 28 of 200

28. Question

______________ is a formal, approved document that includes the collection of outputs of the planning process and is used to manage and control project execution.

The project management plan.
The organizational process asset document.
The organizational procedures document.
The work authorization system.

Question 29 of 200

29. Question

Risk plans, quality plans, and change control plans are all _______________ to the project plan.

Constraints.
Appendixes.
Additions.
Subsidiaries.

Question 30 of 200

30. Question

As a project manager, you must ensure that changes are coordinated across the entire project life cycle from conception to completion. The process that focuses on this requirement is:

Managing the Triple Constraint.
Change management integration.
Perform integrated change control.
Configuration management.

Question 31 of 200

31. Question

A project is being executed and is progressing through its life cycle. You notice a significantly large percentage of project changes occurring on the project have been originated by the research department. What should you do?

Assign a team member to work solely with the research department.
Change your communication plan to ensure that you, as the project manager, are the only person assigned to interface with the research department.
Ask the research department to assign one person to be your liaison.
Schedule a meeting with the research department to review the change process and determine the causes of the changes.

Question 32 of 200

32. Question

You are managing an information technology project. A technical specialist on your team, after having an informal meeting with a low ranking customer representative working on the project, determines that a simple alteration would be a great addition to the project. You and the project sponsor have already signed off on the scope and a change control process is in place. The technical specialist installs the change with no negative effect to the project schedule and at no additional cost. What management action should be taken?

The technical specialist should be recognized for exceeding customer expectations without affecting project cost or schedule.
The project manager should add a task to the project plan with no additional scheduled time and note that there was no increased budget.
The technical specialist should be informed their actions were not authorized and was inconsistent with the change management plan.
The project manager should create a change control form, and have the customer sign-off, since the change has already been made.

Question 33 of 200

33. Question

Two months into a design project, the customer requested a modification to the product specifications. The change was immediately implemented by the project team without notifying the project manager. During the final testing phase, results were different than what was planned. This scenario is an example of which of the following?

Poor adherence to the change control process.
Poor adherence to the communication plan.
Poor development of the quality management plan.
Poor definition of the test plan.

Question 34 of 200

34. Question

Determining if the project scope has been completed relies mostly upon the use of:

Project Charter.
Project Scope Statement.
Statement of Work.
Project Plan.

Question 35 of 200

35. Question

You have been selected as the project manager for a major infrastructure upgrade at your company headquarters. This means that:

A project charter has been approved and signed by management.
Project selection processes have been initiated.
The project plan has been progressively elaborated.
The scope of the project has been verified.

Question 36 of 200

36. Question

As a project manager you should become familiar with the description of the product that will be delivered to ensure that:

A relationship exists between the product and the business need.
No changes to the product scope will occur.
The project scope can be changed without detailed analysis.
All constraints have been removed.

Question 37 of 200

37. Question

The process of planning in increments, adding detail as the plan is developed is known as:

Scope definition.
Decomposition.
Progressive elaboration.
Rolling Wave Planning.

Question 38 of 200

38. Question

The scope statement includes all of the following except:

Project business objectives.
Project deliverables.
Project deliverables.
Product summary.

Question 39 of 200

39. Question

You and your team are working together, subdividing the major deliverables of the project into smaller components. You are involved in the process of:

Scope Planning.
Decomposition.
Initiation.
Scope statement development.

Question 40 of 200

40. Question

The process that will help to improve the reliability of cost, duration, and resource estimates is:

Define scope.
Product analysis.
Cost/Benefit analysis.
Initiation.

Question 41 of 200

41. Question

The document that describes in detail, the objectives, project work, deliverables, and product of a project is the:

Scope statement.
Project Charter.
Work breakdown structure.
Work breakdown structure dictionary.

Question 42 of 200

42. Question

Completion of the product scope is measured against:

Product requirements.
Project requirements.
Project objectives.
Scope statement.

Question 43 of 200

43. Question

A work package is:

A task with a unique identifier.
The first level of the work breakdown structure.
A deliverable oriented grouping of project components.
The work package is the lowest level of the WBS.

Question 44 of 200

44. Question

You receive a verbal change request from your client that will impact the agreed upon scope of work. You should:

ept the change, document the request then assign someone to oversee it.
Advise the customer that changes to the scope are not acceptable.
Review the change control process with the client.
Accept the change only after ensuring you are not held accountable for additional work..

Question 45 of 200

45. Question

All of the following are included in scope change control except:

Influencing factors that create scope changes.
Determining that a change has occurred.
Verifying the correctness of work results.
Managing the actual changes when and if they occur.

Question 46 of 200

46. Question

A term used to describe the magnitude of unauthorized variations to the scope of work is:

Re-planning.
Feasibility analysis.
Scope creep.
Performance measurement.

Question 47 of 200

47. Question

Reviews, audits, and walk-throughs are examples of:

Formal acceptance.
Inspection.
Additional planning.
Internal failure.

Question 48 of 200

48. Question

The ______________ aids in creating a more detailed definition of the scope of the project and can be used to validate the work of the project.

Scope baseline.
Work breakdown structure.
Project charter.
Alternatives identification.

Question 49 of 200

49. Question

The scope baseline is defined as the:

Project Scope statement, work breakdown structure and work breakdown structure Dictionary.
Approved project scope statement and charter.
Approved project scope, schedule and budget.
Validated measurements and approved changes.

Question 50 of 200

50. Question

The ______________ contains detailed descriptions of work packages.

Work breakdown structure dictionary.
Scope of work statement.
Task-level budget estimates.
Activity cost estimates.

Question 51 of 200

51. Question

A scope statement is important because it:

Provides an executive summary of the project for sponsors.
Documents authorization of the project for the stakeholders.
Provided criteria for determining total project cost.
Defines the product, the project deliverables and user acceptance criteria.

Question 52 of 200

52. Question

A stakeholder wants to make a change to the work breakdown structure that does not affect the time or cost of the project. What is the BEST thing to do?

Tell the stakeholder that the change cannot be made without revising the project plan.
Make the change since it does not affect the schedule or the project budget.
Meet with management to discuss the change control processes.
Have a change request initiated and look for other impacts on the project.

Question 53 of 200

53. Question

Determining activity sequences, developing activity duration estimates and estimating resource requirements are necessary to:

Define the project.
Develop the work breakdown structure.
Develop the schedule.
Initiate the project.

Question 54 of 200

54. Question

All of the following are inputs to the process “define activities”, except:

Scope baseline.
Organizational process assets.
Enterprise environmental factors.
Decomposition.

Question 55 of 200

55. Question

The software cannot be tested until coding is completed. This is an example of:

Discretionary dependency.
Soft logic.
Preferential logic.
Mandatory dependency.

Question 56 of 200

56. Question

You have been asked to reduce the schedule duration of a major project. Your team suggests overlapping several project activities to reduce the overall duration. This process is known as:

Crashing.
Fast tracking.
Leveling.
Monte Carlo technique.

Question 57 of 200

57. Question

A functional manager for the engineering team has provided you with this information: A work package for the engineering activities will most likely require 12 weeks to complete. If everything goes well, it could take 8 weeks, but there have been times when this work has taken 24 weeks to complete. Based on this information, what is the expected duration of the work package?

13.33.
14.27.
44.
12.

Question 58 of 200

58. Question

A work package is behind schedule. You decide to add more resources to the activities and use overtime to correct the schedule slippage. This is an example of the technique known as:

Resource leveling.
Heuristics.
Crashing.
CPM.

Question 59 of 200

59. Question

The start of an activity must be delayed until 5 days after the finish of its preceding activity. The correct term for this modification of the logical relationship is:

Lead.
Lag.
Slack.
Float.

Question 60 of 200

60. Question

Which of the following is not a tool or technique in the Control Schedule process?

Schedule compression.
Performance reviews..
Resource optimization techniques.
Change requests.

Question 61 of 200

61. Question

The technique used to modify the project schedule to account for limited resources or to develop a “resource-limited” schedule is known as:

Precedence Diagram Method.
Critical Path Method.
Critical Chain Method.
Schedule Network Analysis.

Question 62 of 200

62. Question

What kind of dependencies can be shown by the Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)?

Finish to Start.
Start to Finish.
Start to Start.
Finish to Finish.

Question 63 of 200

63. Question

You are in the process of calculating the early and late start and finish dates for your project activities. This form of mathematical analysis is known as:

Critical Path Method.
Monte Carlo simulation.
Program Evaluation Review Technique.
Program Evaluation Review Technique.

Question 64 of 200

64. Question

Your sponsor has informed you that a major project activity must be scheduled with a date to start no earlier than June 1. This is an example of:

A major milestone.
A lag.
A constraint.
An activity duration estimate.

Question 65 of 200

65. Question

Your project sponsor contacts you and asks you to provide an estimate on the total duration of a newly approved project. He wants the estimate to be available for a meeting with project stakeholders that has been scheduled for later in the afternoon. The most appropriate estimating technique to meet this need would be:

A bottom-up estimate.
A definitive estimate.
A PERT estimate.
An analogous estimate.

Question 66 of 200

66. Question

How does Free Float differ from Total Float?

Total Float is the accumulated amount of Free Float.
There is no real difference – the two terms are functionally equivalent.
Activity free float is calculated by subtracting its Total Float from the critical path Total Float.
Free Float affects only the early start of any immediately following activities.

Question 67 of 200

67. Question

You are working on a software development project, and are about to enter the testing phase. The project requires the installation of specific hardware which is associated with another project that has been delayed. This is an example of:

Mandatory dependency.
External dependency.
Internal dependency.
Discretionary dependency.

Question 68 of 200

68. Question

The tools and techniques of the process “Define Activities” include all of the following except:

Decomposition.
Rolling wave planning.
Scope baseline.
Expert judgment.

Question 69 of 200

69. Question

You have been asked to develop a schematic display of the logical relationships of your project’s activities. The result of your efforts is the:

Project network diagram.
Resource breakdown structure.
Work breakdown structure.
Schedule network template.

Question 70 of 200

70. Question

Typically, during the project planning process, a detailed project network schedule can be created after:

A scope statement is approved.
The work breakdown structure is created.
An escalation process is agreed upon.
A project control plan is created.

Question 71 of 200

71. Question

Generally, projects are planned by developing phases that are performed sequentially. In some cases, it is necessary to accelerate the project life cycle by overlapping project phases. Which of the following best describes this technique?

The technique of overlapping requires the elimination of minor project activities which results in higher quality.
Overlapping project phases will compress the schedule but will not generally have an effect on project risk.
This technique is known as fast tracking and the risk level should be acceptable before it is implemented.
This technique is known as crashing and can increase the cost of the project but will not affect project risk.

Question 72 of 200

72. Question

All of the following are inputs to the Determine Budget process except:

Scope Baseline.
Project Schedule.
Activity cost estimates.
Human Resource Plan.

Question 73 of 200

73. Question

Your project’s earned value (EV) = 350, its actual cost (AC) = 400 and its planned value (PV) = 325. What is the cost variance (CV)?

+350
-75
+400
-50

Question 74 of 200

74. Question

Measuring the square footage of a building and then multiplying that figure by a set cost factor for construction is an example of:

Analogous estimating.
Parametric estimating.
SWAG.
Bottom up estimating.

Question 75 of 200

75. Question

Your team is in the process of finalizing and producing the cost baseline for the project you are working on. Your team is involved in which of the following?

Cost Estimating.
Determine Budget.
Resource leveling.
Bottom up estimating.

Question 76 of 200

76. Question

You are involved in the process of developing an assessment of the likely quantitative amount of funding that will be required to complete the project. You are involved in:

Pricing/Costing.
Alternatives analysis.
Estimate costs.
Risk assessment.

Question 77 of 200

77. Question

Which of the following is not generally an example of direct cost?

Materials.
Subcontractor expenses.
Employee benefits.
Project manager salary.

Question 78 of 200

78. Question

Your project actual cost has been reported at $200.000. This is equal to the Earned Value. The Budget at completion for your project is $400.000. It is assumed that all future work will be accomplished at the budgeted rate. The EAC (Estimate At Completion) is:

$200,000
$600,000
$400,000
Cannot be determined with the information provided.

Question 79 of 200

79. Question

You are requested to produce the estimated cost of the project, as closely and as accurately as possible. Which of the following techniques would you use?

Bottom-up estimating.
Order of Magnitude.
Parametric.
Analogous.

Question 80 of 200

80. Question

Doubling the number of resources will not necessarily halve the time taken on a project. This is an example of:

Marginal analysis.
Pareto rule.
Parkinson’s law.
Law of diminishing returns.

Question 81 of 200

81. Question

Opportunity cost is associated with:

Project selection – when one project is selected over another.
Selecting one project and taking it through completion.
Careful and detailed estimating of project benefits.
Definitive estimating to realize project profits.

Question 82 of 200

82. Question

You have allocated the project costs over the life cycle of the project. The main output of this process is a (an):

Project schedule.
Cost control plan.
Time-phased budget.
Estimate At Completion.

Question 83 of 200

83. Question

Earned value management is a tool and technique that can be used in:

Cost baseline development.
Controlling costs.
Parametric estimating.
Cost budgeting.

Question 84 of 200

84. Question

You are reviewing an earned value report and observe that the CPI is 1.2 and the SPI is 1. You will report to your sponsor that the project is:

Right on plan according to schedule and budget baselines.
Ahead of schedule and over budget.
On schedule and under budget.
Not enough information to determine the project condition.

Question 85 of 200

85. Question

Your earned value analysis report is due. Project information indicates the following: EV = 150,000, PV = 140,000, AC = 160,000. You will report to your project sponsor that the project is:

The project is ahead of schedule and under budget.
The project is ahead of schedule and over budget.
The project is behind schedule and over budget.
The project is behind schedule and under budget.

Question 86 of 200

86. Question

As projects progress through their lifecycles, a graph of project cost expenditures will follow a characteristic “S” shape. Typically the information provided in this type of graph indicates that:

Projects run in “cycles”.
Problems often occur near the beginning and the end of projects.
Projects inherently are prone to experiencing “ups and downs”.
Project costs start at low levels, rapidly increase, plateau and then decline.

Question 87 of 200

87. Question

If the cumulative CPI falls below the baseline plan, all future work must be performed at:

The TCPI to achieve the planned BAC.
Below the TCPI to achieve the planned BAC.
The planned CPI to achieve the planned BAC.
The planned ETC to achieve the planned BAC.

Question 88 of 200

88. Question

The average cost of a 6 year project is estimated to be $6 million per year and the estimated total profit is expected to be $12 million. The annual ROI for this project is:

33%
0%
50%
25%

Question 89 of 200

89. Question

Generally, Earned Value Management is a technique used for measuring variance on:

Small, short duration projects.
Large, complex projects.
Only projects external to an organization.
Only Government projects.

Question 90 of 200

90. Question

A product that is produced at a high level of quality but does not include many of the features of similar products is referred to as:

Inaccurate.
Imprecise.
Low grade.
Non-conforming.

Question 91 of 200

91. Question

Quality planning involves documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance in meeting requirements and should be performed:

In parallel with the other planning processes.
During the initial phase of the project.
After the work breakdown structure has been developed.
By the organization prior to the approval of the project charter.

Question 92 of 200

92. Question

To ensure that a product has been properly prepared for safe use, which of the following should be used by the inspector operating the product?

Check list.
Quality control plan.
Cause and effect process.
Cause and effect process.

Question 93 of 200

93. Question

Your team is analyzing defects and attempting to isolate the root cause of a problem. Two variables have been isolated through analysis of the data that is available. There is a concern that one of the two variables is compounding the problem by causing an effect on the other. Which of the following tools or techniques will assist in identifying the relationship between variables?

Flow chart.
Pareto diagram.
Scatter diagram.
Run chart.

Question 94 of 200

94. Question

A classification according to technical characteristics for items having the same functional use is:

Grade.
Quality.
Accuracy.
Precision.

Question 95 of 200

95. Question

All of the following are tools and techniques used in Control Quality except:

Pareto diagram.
Quality metrics.
Control charts.
Scatter diagram.

Question 96 of 200

96. Question

You are managing a project and have discovered during a walk through inspection that a large amount of scrap material has been generated by a team of newly hired workers. The scrap material is an example of:

Internal failure.
External failure.
Cost of conformance.
Appraisal costs.

Question 97 of 200

97. Question

You have been asked to identify the primary reasons for the high percentage of product returns your company is experiencing. Which of the following tools will most effectively assist you in further identifying the reasons for the failures?

Pareto chart.
Fishbone or Ishikawa diagram.
Scatter Diagram.
Attribute sampling.

Question 98 of 200

98. Question

The total cost of all efforts including prevention, appraisal and defect repair to achieve product or service quality is known as:

The Quality Plan.
Cost of quality.
Cost baseline.
Total Quality Management.

Question 99 of 200

99. Question

A project team is inspecting specific outputs based on defined criteria and rejecting the defective outputs. Which process group is the team working on?

Execution.
Planning.
Monitoring and Controlling.
Closing.

Question 100 of 200

100. Question

You have contracted a team of experts to define the right mix of ingredients that will produce the desired product, ensuring optimization of the process, while reducing the sensitivity of the product performance. Which of the following techniques is being used?

Statistical sampling.
Brainstorming.
Nominal group technique.
Design of experiments.

Question 101 of 200

101. Question

You have developed a graphical display of process results gathered over time and have used the information to determine that the process is not performing within expected parameters. You have identified eight consecutive data points that are above the process average. This is an indication of _______________________.

A trend.
Process out of control.
A random cause.
An alpha risk.

Question 102 of 200

102. Question

Inspections are utilized by the project manager to assess the quality of deliverables produced during the project life cycle. The costs incurred during the inspection process are associated with:

Prevention costs.
Cost of non-conformance.
Cost benefit analysis.
Appraisal costs.

Question 103 of 200

103. Question

Monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards is:

Quality control.
Quality assurance.
Quality planning.
Earned Value Management.

Question 104 of 200

104. Question

Fitness for use and the legal aspects of quality are key items emphasized by:

Crosby.
Juran.
Kerzner.
Heerkens.

Question 105 of 200

105. Question

You have gathered information about product defects through analysis and have compiled a list of defects that have been repeating over a period of time. You notice that some of the defects are appearing more frequently than others. You want to address the defects that occur most often. Which tool would you select to display and prioritize the frequency of defects?

Pareto diagram.
Run chart.
Control chart.
Scatter diagram.

Question 106 of 200

106. Question

“You are performing root cause analysis to figure out the reason behind a problem that was discovered during testing. Which process are you performing?”

Perform Quality Assurance.
Inspection.
Process analysis.
Control Quality.

Question 107 of 200

107. Question

All of the following are tools and techniques in the Control Quality process except:

Cause and effect diagram.
Histogram.
Expert Judgment.
Run chart.

Question 108 of 200

108. Question

As the project manager for the Step-Fast Personal exercise product you contract with a subject matter expert to determine if the project activities comply with organizational and project policies and procedures. The SME is specifically interested in identifying gaps and shortcomings in your processes. You have initiated which of the following?

Quality plan review.
Develop quality control measurements.
Prevention process.
Quality audit.

Question 109 of 200

109. Question

Comparing actual or planned project practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement is known as:

Benchmarking.
Benefit/cost analysis.
Flowcharting.
Pareto diagram.

Question 110 of 200

110. Question

A project manager has the least amount of authority in the ________________ organizational structure.

Matrix.
Strong Matrix.
Projectized.
Functional.

Question 111 of 200

111. Question

Choose the right sequence of stages during team formation:

Forming, Storming, Developing, Performing.
Forming, Norming, Performing, Storming.
Forming, Performing, Norming, Storming.
Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing.

Question 112 of 200

112. Question

Project managers must develop skills to ensure that work is completed and deliverables are produced. This means developing an understanding of formal and informal structures of all organizations involved in the project, plus an understanding of power and politics. Understanding all of these elements will assist in improving the project manager’s:

Formal reporting process.
Upward communication.
Influencing skills.
Writing style.

Question 113 of 200

113. Question

A project manager realizes that more IT system administrators are urgently needed to manage the IT systems on a project. Who is responsible for providing these resources?

The head of the IT department.
The project manager.
HR department.
Senior management.

Question 114 of 200

114. Question

A project manager’s authority is lowest in:

Projectized.
Strong matrix.
Weak matrix.
Balanced matrix.

Question 115 of 200

115. Question

You have just completed negotiations to acquire additional resources for your project. During the negotiations there was considerable conflict about which resources would be provided by the functional group. A solution was reached in which you were able to obtain most of the resources you needed, but you had to agree to give up some of those resources at an earlier date than you had planned. This conflict was resolved using which type of conflict handling?

Forcing.
Collaboration.
Compromise.
Smoothing.

Question 116 of 200

116. Question

You have just joined an informal group of people who meet to discuss new trends and issues in project management. The satisfaction that you gain from associating with that group is most closely aligned with:

The first level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.
The 5th level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.
The 3rd level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.
Herzberg’s Hygiene Theory.

Question 117 of 200

117. Question

Which tool is used to specify the role played by the team members on various activities of a project?

A resource pool description.
A responsibility assignment matrix.
A work package.
A cost account code.

Question 118 of 200

118. Question

The project manager is likely to be most successful in developing a strong and supportive high performing team in which structure?

Projectized.
Strong matrix.
Balanced matrix.
Functional.

Question 119 of 200

119. Question

Collective bargaining agreements are an example of a (an) ______________ during organizational planning.

Assumption.
Constraint.
Pre-determined project team selection.
Expected staff assignment.

Question 120 of 200

120. Question

You have decided that your best approach to keep your team working effectively is to monitor their performance very closely and to carefully analyze their work output. This style of management is referred to as:

Theory Y.
Hygienic motivation.
Theory Z.
Theory X.

Question 121 of 200

121. Question

All of the following are tools and techniques for team development except:

Reward and recognition.
Collocation.
Acquisition.
Training.

Question 122 of 200

122. Question

Referring to the Tuckman Model, the greatest level of conflict in the phases of team building is most likely to appear in the ___________________ phase.

Forming.
Adjourning.
Mourning.
Storming.

Question 123 of 200

123. Question

You are reviewing previous work experience, personal interests and personal characteristics of a potentially available group of people and preparing to negotiate for the resources you need. You are engaged in the process of:

Organizational Planning.
Acquire Project Team.
Team development.
Pre-assignment.

Question 124 of 200

124. Question

A project manager has the greatest amount of authority in the organizational structure:

Strong Matrix.
Projectized.
Functional.
Departmentalized.

Question 125 of 200

125. Question

The project manager and a functional manager cannot reach agreement about the assignment of resources for a project. The functional manager insists that the resources are not available due to other priorities. In this case the conflict will require the assistance of the ____________________ to reach a solution.

Customer.
Project Sponsor.
A new project manager.
Contractor.

Question 126 of 200

126. Question

The motivational theory in which the manager thinks he/she needs to watch the employees every minute is called:

Theory X.
Theory Y.
Theory Z.
Hygiene Theory.

Question 127 of 200

127. Question

The project manager of a project that you have been observing appears to remain distant from his team and often places one of his team members in charge for days at a time. This style of management is generally considered to be:

Motivational.
Participatory.
Laissez Fair.
Conciliatory.

Question 128 of 200

128. Question

A project manager is relying on personal charisma and charm for getting the project work done. What form of authority is being used?

Coercive.
Referent.
Formal.
Penalty.

Question 129 of 200

129. Question

The sender–receiver model is designed to assist project managers and team members improve their communication skills by emphasizing:

The need for the project manager to engage in downward communication.
The importance of horizontal communications during project execution.
Potential communications barriers and the importance of feedback loops.
The need to communicate information verbally.

Question 130 of 200

130. Question

You have been asked to provide a report about the cost and schedule variances that also indicate forecast for actuals at the end of the project. Which report will help you to get this information?

Progress report.
Earned Value Analysis report.
Jeopardy report.
Status report.

Question 131 of 200

131. Question

There are 15 people in a team, an addition of one person was made. How many communication channels are present in the team now?

16
105
120
56

Question 132 of 200

132. Question

As a project manager for a new and highly complex project, when is it important for you to develop your communications plan?

During execution.
At the earliest stages of the project.
Upon completion of the project plan.
Evenly throughout each project phase.

Question 133 of 200

133. Question

Project resources should be expended only on communicating information that:

Contributes to project success or where a lack of communication can lead to failure.
Originates from the sponsor or the project management office.
Has been generated internally by the organization’s executive team.
Is developed by the project team.

Question 134 of 200

134. Question

Which of the following roles of the Project Manager best explains the fact that project managers spend 90% of their time on communication?

Servant Leader.
Integrator.
Single point of contact.
Customer management.

Question 135 of 200

135. Question

The collecting, storing, analysis and distribution of project information is accomplished most effectively by using:

Information management systems.
The communications management plan.
The scope statement.
The project change control plan.

Question 136 of 200

136. Question

During project execution, the project manager is required to submit several reports that will communicate information about the project. Describing the project conditions at the present moment in relationship to schedule and other metrics is found in the:

Status report.
Progress report.
Project Forecast.
Quality report.

Question 137 of 200

137. Question

A project team has 10 members. An eleventh member has just been added. How many communication channels does the team have?

11
55
45
355

Question 138 of 200

138. Question

The cost performance index (CPI) is used to indicate:

The sum of individual earned value budgets.
Cost efficiency.
The variance between EV and PV.
The variance between actual cost and budgeted cost.

Question 139 of 200

139. Question

Your project currently has ten people assigned to the project team including yourself. At the end of the month you will be adding three additional team members to your project. What is the change in the number of communications channels after you add the new team members?

13
45
33
78

Question 140 of 200

140. Question

In the communications model the sender transmits information to the receiver. Communication is most effective between sender and receiver when the____________ between the sender and receiver overlaps.

Area of responsibility.
Personality screen.
Region of experience.
Perception screen.

Question 141 of 200

141. Question

Which of the following is NOT a best practice for project meetings?

Send the agenda in advance.
Note the minutes of the meeting and follow up.
Summarize the outcome at the end of the meeting.
Get the widest possible audience.

Question 142 of 200

142. Question

In the communication process, the basic communications model includes all of the following except:

Noise.
Medium.
Urgency.
Message.

Question 143 of 200

143. Question

Which of the following is NOT an output of the Manage communications process?

Communication technology.
Project communications.
Project management plan updates.
Project documents updates.

Question 144 of 200

144. Question

Which of the following does NOT represent “noise”?

Distance.
Cultural differences.
Body language.
Accent.

Question 145 of 200

145. Question

Which of the following is most tightly linked to the Plan Communications Management process?

Project Performance Reports.
Reporting systems.
Interpersonal skills.
Enterprise environmental factors.

Question 146 of 200

146. Question

All of the following are inputs to the process of Plan Risk Management except:

Project Charter.
Project Management Plan.
Organizational Process Assets.
Risk Register.

Question 147 of 200

147. Question

Outputs from Control Risks include all of the following except:

Change requests.
Project documents.
Risk register.
Organizational process assets updates.

Question 148 of 200

148. Question

You are managing a project and have a major decision to make about a change in the plan. You decide to contact several subject matter experts to obtain their opinions before making a decision. Each expert is unaware of the participation by any of the other experts you have contacted. The process being used is:

Nominal group technique.
Delphi technique.
Brainstorming.
SWOT analysis.

Question 149 of 200

149. Question

You have just completed an analysis of project risks and have prioritized them using a probability and impact matrix. The approach you used to prioritize the risks is:

Qualitative analysis.
Quantitative analysis.
Sensitivity analysis.
Earned value analysis.

Question 150 of 200

150. Question

Defining ______________ will provide a structure for systematically identifying risks to a consistent level of detail during the project planning process. The areas defined in this process should reflect common sources of risk for the industry or application area.

Assumptions.
Constraints.
The product description.
Risk categories.

Question 151 of 200

151. Question

All of the following are tools and techniques for risk identification except:

Monte Carlo simulation.
Interviewing.
SWOT analysis.
Delphi technique.

Question 152 of 200

152. Question

A team implemented planned responses for some of the identified risks, but some risks remained. What are these risks called?

Risk events.
Risk triggers.
Primary risks.
Residual risks.

Question 153 of 200

153. Question

The Ishikawa or fishbone diagram is used to display:

System flows.
Predecessors and successor tasks.
Cause and effects.
Casual influences and relationships between activities.

Question 154 of 200

154. Question

The enterprise environmental factors that can influence the “Identify Risk process” include all of the following except:

Assumptions analysis.
Risk attitudes.
Industry studies.
Commercial data bases.

Question 155 of 200

155. Question

Your team is using a probability impact matrix. The scales on each axis of the matrix are labeled Very High, High, Moderate, Low and Very Low. Which process is your team performing?

A cardinal scale.
An ordinal scale.
SWOT analysis.
Quantitative risk analysis.

Question 156 of 200

156. Question

The two dimensions of risk used to determine expected value are:

Consequence and contingencies.
Probability and assumptions analysis.
Probability and consequence.
Probability and data precision.

Question 157 of 200

157. Question

Your team is using a model that translates the uncertainties specified at a detailed level into their potential impact on project objectives at the level of the whole project. The technique being used is:

Modeling and Simulation.
Data precision analysis.
Decision tree analysis.
Quantitative trends.

Question 158 of 200

158. Question

You believe the project’s product design effort would be a major challenge to the team’s abilities and you do not have the tools or material to manage it effectively. You decide to seek a supplier who specializes in the specific technical area. You sign a fixed-price contract to execute this piece of the project work. This is an example of:

Risk avoidance.
Risk transfer.
Risk mitigation.
Risk acceptance.

Question 159 of 200

159. Question

Your team has utilized all of the appropriate tools and techniques for responding to identified project risks and has discovered that some risks have been reduced in impact but remain a potential threat. These risks require further monitoring and are referred to as:

Secondary risks.
Primary risks.
Cumulative risks.
Residual risks.

Question 160 of 200

160. Question

All of the following are tools and techniques for Control Risks except:

Reserve Analysis.
Project risk audits.
Technical performance measurements.
Exploitation.

Question 161 of 200

161. Question

Project risk is typically characterized by what three elements:

Severity of impact, duration of impact and cost of impact.
Identification, type of risk category and probability of impact.
Risk, probability, and impact.
Occurrence, frequency and cost.

Question 162 of 200

162. Question

Purchasing insurance is considered an example of risk:

Mitigation.
Transfer.
Acceptance.
Avoidance.

Question 163 of 200

163. Question

You are the project manager assigned to a critical project, which requires that you handle project risk intentionally and methodically, so you have assembled only the project team. They have identified 32 potential project risks, determined what would trigger the risks, rated and ranked each risk using a risk rating matrix. You have also reviewed and verified all documented assumptions from the project team and verified the sources of data used in the process of identifying and rating the risks. You are continuing to move through the risk management process. What have you forgotten to do?

Conduct a Monte Carlo simulation.
Determine which risks are transferable.
Determine the overall riskiness of the project.
Involve other stakeholders.

Question 164 of 200

164. Question

A project manager is faced with a product design risk issue. It has been determined that the materials used to house a critical component of the product are subject to significant corrosion as a result of exposure to the typical work environment. The project team has decided to modify the design using very expensive corrosion-resistant materials in this component, which will basically eliminate the risk. The technique used by the team is:

Risk avoidance.
Risk acceptance.
Risk transference.
Risk deflection.

Question 165 of 200

165. Question

Using the following information and a normal distribution curve, what is the probability that the project will be completed in 64 days?

16%
84%
50%
100%

Question 166 of 200

166. Question

When you decide to give up your rights under contract to expedite an activity by circumventing a process you have decided to:

Enter into contract default.
Terminate the contract.
Execute a waiver.
Submit an informal change request.

Question 167 of 200

167. Question

The tools and techniques of Control Procurements include all of the following except:

Performance reporting.
Payment systems.
Inspections and audits.
Change requests.

Question 168 of 200

168. Question

The process that ensures that each party meets their contractual obligations and that their legal rights are protected is:

Control procurements.
Contract payment systems.
Claims administration.
Contract change control.

Question 169 of 200

169. Question

Ending a contract before all contractual objectives have been reached due to a buyers decision to change business direction is an example of:

Breach of contract.
Contract close out.
Termination for convenience.
Letter of intent.

Question 170 of 200

170. Question

As the buyer during the contract negotiation process, you are interested in a contract that would have the least amount of risk to your organization. Which of the following contracts would be preferred to meet your risk-averse needs?

Firm Fixed Price.
Cost Plus Percentage of Cost.
Cost Plus Incentive Fee.
Cost Plus Fixed Fee.

Question 171 of 200

171. Question

The buyer has negotiated a cost plus incentive fee contract with the seller. The contract has a target cost $300,000, a target fee of $40,000, a sharing ratio of 80/20, a maximum fee of $60,000 and a minimum fee of $10,000. If the actual cost of the project is $380,000 how much will the buyer pay as a fee to the seller?

$56,000
$104,000
$30,000
$24,000

Question 172 of 200

172. Question

You are involved in finalizing contract negotiations. The definitive contract has not yet been signed and may take an additional two weeks but it is critical to start several work packages within the three days’ work to avoid schedule problems later. You should utilize a:

Verbal agreement to get started.
Letter of intent or letter contract.
A project charter.
A statement of work update.

Question 173 of 200

173. Question

A contract can be described as:

An informal agreement between two parties.
A mutually binding agreement involving an offer and an acceptance.
A type of project scope statement.
A document approved by the sponsor defining project manager authority.

Question 174 of 200

174. Question

Buyers may wish to review the qualifications of potential sellers before they actually meet with them. This process is known as:

Obtaining independent estimates.
Screening.
A weighting system.
Contract negotiation.

Question 175 of 200

175. Question

As the project manager for a new project you have been given the responsibility to provide all potential contractors with the information they need to determine if they would like to continue with the contracting process. To accomplish this you may want to schedule a:

Project stakeholder meeting.
A bidder’s conference.
A make or buy analysis conference.
A project kickoff meeting.

Question 176 of 200

176. Question

All of the following are examples of procurement documents except:

Request for Information.
Request for Proposal.
Project Scope Statement.
Request for Quote.

Question 177 of 200

177. Question

A cost reimbursable contract introduces greater risk to the:

Buyer.
Seller.
Project team.
Functional managers.

Question 178 of 200

178. Question

The seller is protected from liabilities and penalties when a project is impacted by a natural disaster through the:

Liquidated damages clause.
Penalty clause.
Force Majeure clause.
Statement of work.

Question 179 of 200

179. Question

A high level description of the scope issued by the buyer, specifying the work expected to be completed by the seller is called:

Statements of work.
Acceptance criteria.
Considerations.
Teaming agreements.

Question 180 of 200

180. Question

The legal contractual relationship that exists between a buyer and a seller after the contract is signed is known as:

Privity.
Obligation.
Bilateral agreement.
Legally bonded relationship.

Question 181 of 200

181. Question

In a cost reimbursable contract, the risk of cost escalation is borne by the:

Buyer.
Seller.
Project manager.
Shared between seller & buyer.

Question 182 of 200

182. Question

A cost-plus-incentive-fee (CPIF) contract has an estimated cost of $150,000 with a predetermined fee of $15,000 and a share ratio of 80/20. The actual cost of the project is $130,000. What is the total fee that will be awarded to the seller?

$31,000
$19,000
$15,000
None of the above.

Question 183 of 200

183. Question

Under which type of contract does the seller accept all liability for poor workmanship, engineering errors and consequential damages?

Incentive fee.
Fixed price.
Cost plus.
Cost plus fixed fee.

Question 184 of 200

184. Question

Contractual language does not preclude the possibility of misunderstandings and situations that could adversely affect project progress. Therefore, it is considered a best practice to have a _________________________ committee established as a means of removing the obstacles and managing conflicts.

Top management.
Disputes resolution.
Steering.
Engagement.

Question 185 of 200

185. Question

Which of the following contract types does not encourage the seller to control costs and, as a result, places the greatest risk on the buyer?

Cost exclusive.
Cost Plus Fixed Fee.
Cost Plus Incentive Fee.
Cost Plus Percentage of Cost.

Question 186 of 200

186. Question

Project information has been distributed according to the communications plan. Some project deliverables have been changed and were made according to the change control plan. One stakeholder expressed surprise to the project manager upon being informed of a previously published change to a project deliverable. All other stakeholders received notification of the change. What should the project manager do?

Inform the stakeholder of the date when the change was approved.
Review the communications plan with the stakeholder and explain his responsibility.
Review the communications plan and make revisions, if necessary.
Address the situation in the next steering committee meeting so others do not miss publish changes.

Question 187 of 200

187. Question

During stakeholder analysis the project manager and team may use many different models to classify stakeholders. The model that helps to analyze a stakeholder’s ability to impose his or her will or power and influence the need for immediate attention from the project team along with the legitimacy of the stakeholder’s involvement is the:

Power / interest grid.
RAM.
Salience model.
Stakeholder registers.

Question 188 of 200

188. Question

Which of the following may NOT be a stakeholder to a project?

Project Manager.
Project Team.
Everybody in the customer’s organization.
Suppliers to the project.

Question 189 of 200

189. Question

Stakeholder management involves all of the following EXCEPT:

Identifying the stakeholders.
Keeping all stakeholders happy.
Analyzing stakeholder expectations.
Managing stakeholder engagement.

Question 190 of 200

190. Question

Which of the following should you be most concerned about, during stakeholder analysis?

Their interest in the project.
Their influence on the project.
Both A and B.
Neither A nor B.

Question 191 of 200

191. Question

What is the best way to manage stakeholders which are low on power and interest?

Monitor them.
No need to worry about them.
Treat all stakeholders equal.
Keep them informed.

Question 192 of 200

192. Question

Which of the following is a tool to assess the current and desired state of engagement of a stakeholder on the project?

Stakeholder registers.
Stakeholder management plan.
Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix.
Stakeholder issue log.

Question 193 of 200

193. Question

Which of the following is an input to the plan stakeholder management process?

Stakeholder registers.
Stakeholder management plan.
Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix.
Impact/Power grid.

Question 194 of 200

194. Question

Which conflict resolution technique is most likely to result in a permanent resolution?

Compromise.
Negotiation.
Confrontation.
Smoothing.

Question 195 of 200

195. Question

All of the following is true about critical path activities EXCEPT:

They have zero float.
Any delay in these will delay the project.
It is the shortest possible path from start to finish.
There may be more than one critical path on a project.

Question 196 of 200

196. Question

An important stakeholder in a project is at an “unaware” state at present, i.e. he does not know what is going on in a project. You reckon that his support could be very important. Which of the following is the BEST way to get him to a “supportive” state?

Send him regular reports about the project and its benefits.
Assign some work or review activity to him.
Send him tickets to his favorite opera show.
Give topmost priority to the issues that he has raised.

Question 197 of 200

197. Question

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in manage stakeholder engagements process?

Communication management plan.
Change log.
Issue log.
Inter-personal skills.

Question 198 of 200

198. Question

A project manager is reviewing the stakeholder management plan and communications management plan and sending appropriate information to the stakeholders. She sets up meetings with the stakeholders and ensures that their expectations are being realized. She makes sure that any issues that get raised are addressed promptly as far as possible. Which process in stakeholder management is being worked on here?

Plan stakeholder management.
Manage stakeholder engagements.
Control stakeholder engagements.
Close stakeholder engagements.

Question 199 of 200

199. Question

One of the important inputs to the Control stakeholder engagements is:

Change request.
Issue log.
Information management system.
Work performance information.

Question 200 of 200

200. Question

During the execution of a construction project, excavation activities unearth some artifacts that seem to have some archaeological importance. What should the project manager do?

Ignore the findings and continue work as scheduled.
Inform senior management and continue work as scheduled.
Stop excavation work and call up the archaeological department to quickly research the findings.
Raise a change request.